Per capita GDP versus years since women received right to vote07 Mar 2014
Below is a plot of per capita GPD (in log scale) against years since women received the right to vote for 42 countries. Is this cause, effect, both or neither? We all know correlation does not imply causation, but I see many (non statistical) arguments to support both cause and effect here. Happy International Women’s Day !
pd -What’s with Switzerland?
update - R^2 and p-value added to graph